Did I utter the divorce (talaq) when I was unsure about the movement of the middle of my tongue with the letters (تتط) or (تط), while my mouth was closed, and my lips, the tip of my tongue, and the back of my tongue did not move? And does divorce occur in this case, based on your previous fatwa that it occurs by moving the tongue with an explicit utterance inside the closed mouth, without the lips having moved?

Divorce is not necessitated by unclear utterances, nor by doubt concerning the complete articulation of the divorce formula. The default is non-occurrence until certainty is established. Some scholars have held that divorce occurs upon uttering its clear form with the movement of the tongue, even if the lips do not move, because the letters of the word 'divorce' do not require lip movement. As for one who utters divorce while narrating for another and does not intend its occurrence, nothing is incumbent upon him.