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The question

Is the day on which the husband travels with one of his wives counted for the other wife or not, and how is the compensation calculated?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

If the travel is undertaken with one of the wives, with their consent or by drawing lots, then there is no requirement for the husband to compensate the wife who did not travel. However, if it is without drawing lots or without the consent of both wives, then compensation is obligatory for the wife who did not travel. The preponderant opinion is that it is not permissible to travel without drawing lots. As for the day of travel that coincides with the turn of the traveling wife, the other wife is not to be compensated for it. The method of compensation is for the number of nights spent with the other wife, not for the entire duration of the journey.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
119764
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy