Is the day on which the husband travels with one of his wives counted for the other wife or not, and how is the compensation calculated?
If the travel is undertaken with one of the wives, with their consent or by drawing lots, then there is no requirement for the husband to compensate the wife who did not travel. However, if it is without drawing lots or without the consent of both wives, then compensation is obligatory for the wife who did not travel. The preponderant opinion is that it is not permissible to travel without drawing lots. As for the day of travel that coincides with the turn of the traveling wife, the other wife is not to be compensated for it. The method of compensation is for the number of nights spent with the other wife, not for the entire duration of the journey.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
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