Does a husband's statement to his wife, "You are forbidden to me," constitute a divorce under duress, given his lack of intention to divorce, and then he returns to his forbidden act?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
If the husband intended by prohibiting his wife merely to appease her, then only an expiation for a broken oath (kaffarat ) is required of him. One should be cautious of using words of divorce or prohibition to solve marital problems. The husband must offer sincere repentance if he is in a relationship with a woman unlawful to him.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/120602
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 120602
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy