Does the phrase "I have returned you to my عصمة (bond of marriage)" count as a divorce, based on the speaker's assumption that the first divorce occurred, knowing that the first divorce never actually happened due to anger?

Some scholars are of the opinion that divorce does not take effect when pronounced during extreme anger that does not deprive theouterer of his awareness. However, the preponderant view at our website is that anger does not prevent the divorce from taking effect unless it deprives the pronouncer of his awareness. Therefore, as long as you pronounced the divorce of your wife while you were aware and not overcome by your intellect, your divorce has taken place.

It is permissible for a layperson to act, in matters where there is scholarly disagreement, upon what he believes to be the truth, either by examining the evidence and acting upon what is most preponderant if he is able to do so, or by emulating the most trustworthy scholars in his view.