Is the questioner still her husband's wife, or has she become forbidden to him after the consecutive divorces and reconciliations?
If a husband says to his wife: "You are divorced, do you understand now, you are divorced," and if he intended to effect a divorce with the first phrase and made what followed an affirmation, or if he had no specific intention, then one divorce takes effect. However, if he intended to effect a divorce with the second phrase, then, according to the majority of scholars, two divorces take effect.
As for divorce issued by a court, if the husband is the one who initiated it and requested its documentation, it is a revocable divorce (ṭalāq rajʿī). If the judge is the one who decreed it, it takes effect as an irrevocable divorce (ṭalāq bā’in), except in cases of the Mūlī (one who swears not to have sexual relations with his wife) and the one who is unable to provide for maintenance, in which case it is revocable.
Divorce during menstruation is a forbidden innovation (bidʿī) and is unlawful. The fatwa issued by us is that it takes effect, and this is the view of most scholars.
Since this matter involves details, one must refer to the court to ascertain the type of divorce and to verify the validity of the rajʿah (reconciliation/return).
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/183692