What is the ruling regarding a man's statement to his wife: "You are unlawful to me if you do such-and-such," if the woman does that due to a misunderstanding, and is it considered a divorce, and how can she be taken back during the waiting period (iddah)?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
If a man prohibits his wife and intends divorce, it counts as a divorce. If he intends ẓihār, then it is ẓihār. If he intends an oath, then it is an oath. The procedure for reconciliation is detailed in No. 12908.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/51988
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 51988
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy