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The question

Is the husband entitled to reclaim any part of the mahr (dower) if the wife seeks divorce due to his ill-treatment and abandonment, knowing that he did not spend on her throughout the period of his absence, and if so, what is the amount he is entitled to?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

Among the most reprehensible acts is for a husband to strike his wife without a legitimate Shar'i justification, or to abuse her through words or deeds. If the husband assaults his wife and strikes her, she is not considered disobedient (nashiz) for leaving his house, and her maintenance (nafaqa) is not forfeited. It is permissible for the wife's father to claim from her husband what he spent on her, provided he was not donating it. The wife has the right to seek divorce due to harm. If he refuses, she may seek khul' from him in exchange for compensation, as agreed upon by both parties. However, if the husband is the cause of the divorce, he is not permitted to take compensation. Reconciliation should be sought whenever possible. If it is not possible, then the determination of who is the oppressor rests with the Shar'i court, or the two arbitrators (hakamayn), and those who mediate for reform.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
116626
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy