What is the ruling on one who answers in the negative about an action he used to do but has stopped, and his intention is for the present time, even though he has sworn to that? Is repentance sufficient for him, or is expiation obligatory?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
If the intention is to particularize the general and restrict the absolute in an oath, then as long as the situation is as described, there is no expiation () and no sin requiring repentance, because an oath is based on theath-taker's intention. So, if he intends by his oath something that the wording can bear, his oath is directed towards that.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/90374
Where this answer came from
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 90374
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy