What is meant by Ibn Faris's statement: "These names ceased to exist with the cessation of their meanings," and does he mean by "cessation" a lack of use? If so, how can that be correct when some of them are still in use?

Ibn Faris and Al-Jahiz explain that some words from the pre-Islamic era ceased to be used with the advent of Islam because their meanings became obsolete. Examples include "al-mirba’" (the fourth share of spoils), "al-nasheetah" (spoils taken before division), and "al-fudhool" (excess spoils), all of which related to the pre-Islamic division of war spoils. Similarly, "al-itawah" (tribute) and "al-maks" (tax/toll) were replaced by the Islamic system of "al-kharaj" (land tax). "Al-hulwan," which meant the prohibited fee of a soothsayer, also falls into this category. These words are no longer used with their pre-Islamic meanings.