Does a divorce take place if a man swore to himself by triple divorce, saying, "By the triple haram, I will not do this again," and his intention was only to prevent himself, but then he did what he swore to abandon?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
Scholars have differed concerning one who swears by divorce and makes it conditional upon an action or its omission, then violates it. The majority of them hold that the divorce takes place absolutely. However, Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyyah differentiated between one who intended divorce, in which case it occurs upon violation, and one who intended an oath, in which case divorce does not occur, but he must offer an expiation for an oath (kaffarat ). These rulings apply if the oath was uttered, even if no one heard it. However, if it was merely an internal thought without utterance, then nothing is incumbent upon him.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/51362
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 51362
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy