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The question

Does a divorce take place if a man swore to himself by triple divorce, saying, "By the triple haram, I will not do this again," and his intention was only to prevent himself, but then he did what he swore to abandon?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

Scholars have differed concerning one who swears by divorce and makes it conditional upon an action or its omission, then violates it. The majority of them hold that the divorce takes place absolutely. However, Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyyah differentiated between one who intended divorce, in which case it occurs upon violation, and one who intended an oath, in which case divorce does not occur, but he must offer an expiation for an oath (kaffarat ). These rulings apply if the oath was uttered, even if no one heard it. However, if it was merely an internal thought without utterance, then nothing is incumbent upon him.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
51362
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy