What is the ruling regarding the third divorce pronouncement that occurred for the purpose of traveling to South Africa for a job requirement, knowing that sexual intercourse took place before and after the pronouncement, and that they have been living in the same house for a year? Has this divorce taken place despite being intended for a benefit? And what is the ruling on his seclusion with her throughout this period?

If a man utters a clear statement of divorce to his wife or writes it (according to some scholars), the divorce takes effect even if he did not intend it, and the woman becomes irrevocably divorced from him, no longer permissible for him, and he must separate from her immediately. The occurrence of the third divorce in a period of purity during which the husband had intercourse does not affect the validity of the divorce according to the majority of scholars. However, if he neither uttered the divorce nor wrote it, then his wife remains under his marital bond, and cohabiting with her is permissible.