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The question

What is the ruling of Islamic law regarding the issue of a father swearing an oath of divorce upon the mother that he will not take any money from his daughters, despite his severe need for money, knowing that this is the final divorce? And is it permissible for a sister to give money to the mother for her to, in turn, hand it over to the father, so that the father does not take the money directly from his daughter?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

The majority of jurists hold that swearing by divorce results in its occurrence upon breaking the oath, and this is the relied-upon opinion, contrary to Ibn Taymiyyah, who views it as necessitating an expiation for an oath (kaffarat yameen).

Therefore, if the father violated his oath and took the money from his daughter, he has broken his oath, and his wife is divorced.

If the father intended not to accept the money due to anger, then delivering the money to him indirectly through the mother does not change the ruling. The decisive factor in an oath is the intention and purpose of the swearer, not circumvention. Whoever resorts to circumvention is considered to have broken the oath.

If the swearer did not have a specific intention, then the decisive factor is the reason for the oath.

It is recommended to present the matter to trustworthy scholars in your country.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
122653
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy