Is it sufficient, to fulfill an oath of divorce regarding a demand for a debt, for the amount to be demanded and then returned to the creditor the following day, and then later to declare a lack of desire for it to preserve relations, or was it obligatory to demand it directly and not return it to avoid the occurrence of the divorce oath? And is expiation (kaffarah) required for this oath for someone who swore it for the first time?

Swearing by divorce is forbidden and an innovation, and it entails serious consequences. Divorce occurs when the oath is broken, according to the majority of scholars, whether the one swearing intended the divorce to take effect or merely intended to threaten. Some scholars hold that an expiation for an oath becomes binding if one did not intend to effect a divorce. In this case, the oath was not fulfilled because he was not asked for the money. To fulfill it, he must be asked for it.