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Does a divorce take effect if the husband says to his wife: "You are forbidden to me" if she leaves without his permission, knowing that she did not remember his forbidding her before she left?

1 min readAlso available in العربية

Scholars have differed regarding the ruling on swearing an oath by declaring one's wife unlawful (tahrim). Some are of the view that it constitutes ẓihār, while others consider it a divorce (ṭalāq), and yet others deem it an oath (yamīn). Some differentiate based on whether the intention was divorce, ẓihār, or an oath. The husband's statement: "Your daughter is divorced because I forbade her from leaving without my knowledge, and she left," could imply either the suspension of divorce or the declaration of unlawfulness upon her leaving. To determine the ruling, the husband's intention and purpose must be ascertained.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

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