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The question

Is the one who asks considered sinful for the oath of the person who swore to pay but did not do so, by the asker's leaving him to pay?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

The questioner incurs no sin for what was done, and fulfilling the oath of one who has sworn is desirable, not obligatory. It is applicable when there is no harm or corruption involved. There is no sin on theayer, and he must expiate for his oath if it is not fulfilled. The expiation is on the one who swore himself, because he is the one who broke the oath.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
174933
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy