What is the current status of an oath between spouses, and what is the ruling on its continuation? Does divorce occur if the wife responds to the husband’s family after the problem has been resolved, given that the husband, in a moment of intense anger, said to his wife: "Divorce upon me by three if you respond to them, you are divorced," with the intention of preventing her from answering calls from his family to resolve a family issue?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
If you intended by your oath to prevent your wife from responding to your family only for the duration of the problem, and you did not intend to prevent her permanently, then your oath is not broken, and no divorce occurs if she speaks to them after the problem has ended. This is because intention is what matters in oaths. We would like to alert you that the lawful oath is by Allah Almighty, and swearing by divorce is among the oaths of the dissolute.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/182509
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 182509
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy