Is the marriage contract valid between a man and a chaste woman, knowing that he used to commit sins before marriage (knowing a non-mahram girl, seeing her body, masturbating for her, and her masturbating for him), but he did not commit adultery, and he got married before repenting?
If the marriage fulfills its conditions and pillars, then the contract is valid. It is not invalidated by the husband committing abominable acts before the contract. He must offer sincere repentance and conceal his sins, for repentance erases what came before it.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/170984