Is it permissible to say in grammar that a Quranic verse has no grammatical parsing?

It is permissible to use the phrase "لا محل لها من الإعراب" (no grammatical parse/function for it) because it is a grammatical term meaning that the clause cannot replace a single word, and is not grammatically affected by other parts of the sentence. Its meaning is not that it is devoid of meaning or benefit, for grammar is concerned with the structure of words and the states of their endings in terms of inflection (i'rab) and immutability (bina').