Are the husband's words: "Everything is over between us, and I cannot continue with you," with his intention to divorce, considered a divorce?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
If the husband intended the divorce to occur by his utterance, then it has occurred; otherwise, it has not. What matters is his intention at the time of speaking.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/109165
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 109165
- Imported
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