Are the husband's words: "Everything is over between us, and I cannot continue with you," with his intention to divorce, considered a divorce?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
If the husband intended the divorce to occur by his utterance, then it has occurred; otherwise, it has not. What matters is his intention at the time of speaking.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/109165
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 109165
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy