Back to search
The question

What is incumbent upon a husband to do after discovering that his wife had been anally penetrated before marriage; should he continue in his marriage or separate?

Share this answer

Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

If the act occurred during her childhood or without her consent, she bears no sin. However, if she was an adult acting by choice, she has committed a grave sin that necessitates sincere repentance and remorse. In this case, she should not be divorced; rather, she must be shielded and nurtured, for Allah accepts the repentance of His servants and transforms their evil deeds into good ones, as stated in Surat Al-Furqan: "Except for those who repent, believe and do righteous deeds. For them Allah will change their evil deeds into good ones. And Allah is Oft-Forgiving, Most Merciful."

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

Read the full answer on Ftawy
Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
36565
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full ruling
Read the full answer on Ftawy