Is the wife divorced by two separate declarations of divorce, if they occurred during a period of purity in which he had intercourse with her, and the husband was coerced into them?
The majority of scholars hold that a divorce pronounced during a period of purity following intercourse is effective, and the two divorces that occur in this situation are effective if the second one takes place during the revocable waiting period ('iddah raj'iyyah) or after resumption of conjugal relations (irtijaa'). However, Ibn Taymiyyah and those who agreed with him maintain that they are not effective because it is an innovative (bid'i) divorce. And if duress to divorce is considered legitimate in Islamic law (with its conditions fulfilled), then the divorce of someone under duress is not effective.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
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