What is the correct course of action if a man and woman suspect or are certain of the existence of a child conceived through adultery, before the woman marries another man and before 40 days have passed since her intercourse with the adulterer?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
If the fornicatress purifies her womb with one menstrual cycle before marriage, her marriage is valid according to the most preponderant opinion, and the child is attributed to the husband, especially if she menstruated after the fornication and before the husband consummated the marriage with her. There is no condition for 40 days to pass; rather, the occurrence of menstruation is sufficient to purify the womb. The child is attributed to the husband unless it is born less than six months from the date of the marriage contract.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
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- 87139
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