Does a wife become forbidden to her husband if he says, "My wife is forbidden to me if I ever return and ask you for anything or speak with you," and then that happens, knowing that he did not intend divorce but said it in a moment of anger?

Scholars have differed regarding swearing by the unlawfulness of one's wife. Some have held that it is ẓihār, some that it is ṭalāq (divorce), and some that it is an oath (yamīn). The relied-upon opinion is that a distinction is made based on whether one intended ṭalāq, ẓihār, or an oath. If you did not intend ṭalāq, then if you intended ẓihār, you must offer the expiation for ẓihār before touching your wife. If you intended an oath, or did not intend anything specific, then you must offer the expiation for an oath.