What is the interpretation of the verse: "Good women are for good men, and good men are for good women; and evil women are for evil men, and evil men are for evil women," given the existence of exceptions such as a good person marrying an evil one, and vice versa?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
The verse: "Vile women are for vile men, and vile men are for vile women; good women are for good men, and good men are for good women," came in the context of commenting on the incident of the slander (Al-Ifk). Some interpreted it to mean that vile women are for vile men, and good women are for good men, because similarity in character leads to familiarity, and this is the original and most fitting interpretation. Others interpreted it to mean that vile words are uttered by vile people, and good words are uttered by good people.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 48817
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy