Are the two divorces that the man pronounced to his wife after the first divorce, which was not followed by a new marriage contract, counted, or are they not counted on the basis that she is no longer his wife?

If a man divorces his wife before consummating the marriage, she becomes irrevocably separated from him by a minor, irrevocable divorce (baynunah sughra). She is not lawful for him again unless they enter into a new marriage contract with a new mahr (dowry). Based on this, the second and third divorces do not count as they do not take effect, because the woman has become a stranger to him. He is permitted to marry her again with a new contract and a new mahr, and he will still have two divorce pronouncements remaining.