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The question

Is it permissible for a wife to seek divorce due to her husband's sexual incapacity, and is she entitled to receive her full deferred dower, maintenance, and the list of movable assets?

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Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

If the husband is totally impotent and has not consummated the marriage with his wife, and the wife was unaware of his impotence before the marriage contract and does not consent to it after becoming aware, then she has the right to annul the marriage. She is entitled to the full mahr if he had secluded himself with her. However, if the impotence occurred after the marriage, or if the woman consented to it, she does not have the right to annul the marriage, but she can request a divorce or khul'.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

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