Is "woman's maniyy" in the hadith meant to refer to "the man's maniyy that carries the X chromosome" for determining the sex of the fetus, considering that other ahadith refer to the woman's fluid as "woman's water"? And is there any jurisprudential or linguistic interpretation that supports this?

The summary of the previous fatwa (definition) is that the hadith (definition) of Thawban does not indicate that a woman's semen is a primary cause in determining the sex of the fetus. Rather, it indicates that it has an influence, and this does not negate that a man's semen is the true determinant of the fetus's sex. The influence of a woman's semen lies in selecting either the male or female sperm from the man's semen. Some scholars have mentioned that there is a question regarding the wording of Thawban's hadith, and that what is preserved are the hadiths about the cause of resemblance, not about determining the sex of the fetus.