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The question

Does not sending money to his friend—despite his intention to do so—constitute a breach of the oath he swore to his colleague regarding the unavailability of money, and is expiation for the oath incumbent upon him?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

Regarding the oath that you need money to complete your house: If you are indeed in need, then there is nothing upon you. But if you are not in need, then it is a ghamus (a false oath sworn knowingly), and what is obligatory in this case is repentance, and there is no expiation for it according to the majority of scholars.

However, if the oath was to send money and you were unable to send it: This is considered laghw al-yamin (a vain or unintentional oath) related to a future event, and it is more prudent that you offer an expiation for an oath.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
97242
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy