Is the child attributed to his father if he had intercourse with her while she was an apostate without his knowledge, and then she conceived from him and gave birth, and then she repented and returned to Islam?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
The child is attributed to the husband if his intercourse was due to a misconception, and this is by the consensus of scholars. Every marriage that the husband believed to be permissible, his child is attributed to him, and they inherit from each other, even if the marriage was invalid in reality.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/133420
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 133420
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy