Is the statement, "By talaq, you have made me hate my life," considered an oath of divorce, and do the rulings applicable to "By talaq, you are not a man" apply to it?

If a person swears by divorce, lying intentionally, his divorce has occurred according to the majority of scholars. However, if he swears truthfully, even if he believes it to be true, his divorce does not occur thereby. So, if he swears that he is fed up with someone and he is truthful in his annoyance, there is no breaking of the oath. Similarly, if someone swears that a certain person is not a man, and he believes himself to be truthful that the person does not possess the full qualities of manhood, his divorce does not occur. It is worth noting that the lawful oath is by Allah Almighty, whereas swearing by divorce is among the oaths of the dissolute.