What is the ruling on one who wishes to divorce his wife, and on one who says: "As long as I do not issue fatwas without knowledge, then my wife is still bound to me"? And is issuing a fatwa without knowledge considered shirk, and what kind of shirk is it?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
We fear that you may be afflicted with waswasa (whispers/obsessive thoughts) regarding this matter. Divorce does not occur with the two phrases mentioned, and no sin is incurred by the one who utters them. Issuing a (religious edict) without knowledge is a sin and not (associating partners with God).
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/157059
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- 157059
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