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Is a father's gift of his house to his wife (the questioner's mother) valid if the house represents more than half of his estate, and does the gift include the house's furniture and belongings if what is mentioned in the deed is only a gift of "the land property"?

1 min readAlso available in العربية

Writing the house in the name of the donee so that he may reclaim it after the death of the donor, without possession or empowerment to dispose of it during the donor's lifetime, is not considered a legally valid gift. Rather, it is in the nature of a bequest (wasiyya), and a bequest to an heir is not valid unless all other heirs consent, based on the Prophet's (peace be upon him) saying: "Indeed, Allah has given every rightful person his right, and there is no bequest for an heir."

If the mother did not take possession of the house during the father's lifetime, the gift is not considered valid. Rather, it is a bequest that cannot be executed without the consent of all heirs.

The gift of the house does not include furniture unless it is customarily considered an integral part of it, such as doors, stairs, and ceilings, because they are attached to it for its benefit. It does not include separate items like furnishings and keys.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

Read the full answer on Ftawy