Is the husband's statement to his wife: "If you take anything from your father's house, you will not be my wife"—with the intention of intimidation and threat—considered an oath, and what is its expiation?
If the second sentence ("If you take anything from your father's house, you will not be my wife") is an interpretation of the first ("Do not force me to swear an oath upon you if you take anything"), then nothing occurs because it is merely a promise.
However, if the second sentence establishes a new meaning and is intended as an oath, it is a metaphorical divorce (kinayah talaq), and divorce does not occur unless one intends to enact it. But is an expiation for a broken oath (kaffarat yameen) required if the oath is violated? The majority of scholars hold that expiation is not required, whereas Shaykh al-Islam Ibn Taymiyyah and those who agree with him believe it is an oath for which expiation is required, and this opinion is more cautious in this case.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
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