Is the repetition of the explicit pronouncement of divorce by the husband while watching a television program, with the intention of imitating an actor's words, considered an indication that he did not intend to effect a divorce, and consequently, divorce does not occur in this case?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
If someone utters the words "You are divorced" intending to recount what they heard in a TV series, a divorce does not take effect, because they did not intend to initiate a divorce. This is what the questioner understood.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/125614