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The question

Is the marriage of a man who had sexual intercourse with his fiancée several times during the engagement period, and they have not repented of this sin after twelve years of continuous marriage, valid?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

Being lenient in the interactions between fiancés and engaging in (private seclusion) is a cause for immorality. Repentance is obligatory and is not through public declaration, but rather by concealing one's sins, provided the conditions for repentance are met. Marrying someone with whom one has committed zina (fornication/adultery) before ensuring the womb is clear (through istibra') is a matter of scholarly disagreement, and it is valid according to some jurists.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
109673
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy