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Is it permissible for a woman to conceive using her former husband's frozen sperm after their separation, given that the husband did not object to it?

1 min readAlso available in العربية

He mentioned the scholarly disagreement regarding the storage of a husband's sperm, and he favored impermissibility, holding that the child is attributed to the owner of the sperm because what matters is the time the sperm exits, not the time it is introduced or the ovum is fertilized. So, if a woman were to introduce her master's sperm after his death and become pregnant, the child's lineage would be established from him, and the child would inherit from him, because his sperm is considered sacred at the time of its exit.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

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