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The question

Does my wife become irrevocably divorced – according to the Maliki, Shafi'i, and Abu Hanifa schools – based on my husband's oath that his friend did not contact him after traveling, and is there expiation?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

The majority of scholars hold that if a husband makes his wife's divorce contingent upon a condition, the divorce occurs when that condition is met, regardless of whether the husband intended to effect a divorce or merely intended to threaten, emphasize, or prevent. Therefore, you have been divorced by your husband with one revocable divorce due to his breaking of his oath. If he has not divorced you more than once before, he may take you back before your waiting period expires.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
152879
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy