Do churches and other houses of worship become the property of Muslims if they pray in them? And where can the incident of Omar ibn Al-Khattab's refusal to pray in a church in Jerusalem, for fear of it being converted into a mosque, be found?
1. Muslims do not become entitled to churches merely by praying in them. Umar feared that churches might be seized under the pretext of his prayer in them.
2. The story is found in history books when the conquest of Jerusalem is mentioned.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026
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