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How many divorce pronouncements have been made against the wife, especially considering the doubt about a pronouncement uttered 9 years ago, and two recent pronouncements, one during menstruation, and a third pronouncement two days later, bearing in mind that divorce in the questioner's country is not counted by utterance?

1 min readAlso available in العربية

The fundamental principle is that the marital bond remains intact, and divorce does not occur except with certainty. Therefore, a divorce is not binding merely due to doubt about it or about a threat of it.

If a husband divorces his wife three times, and the first divorce occurred a year ago and he did not reconcile with her before her waiting period (iddah) ended, then she is irrevocably divorced and cannot return to him except with a new contract. If he reconciled with her before the iddah ended, then the reconciliation is valid.

The second divorce that occurs during menstruation is effective according to the majority of scholars.

The third divorce that occurs during the waiting period (iddah) of a revocable divorce is also effective, because a woman in revocable iddah is considered like a wife and divorce applies to her.

If the wife was reconciled after the first divorce, then the occurrence of three divorces makes her unlawful for him until she marries another man willingly, and he divorces her after consummating the marriage.

Divorce occurs as soon as the husband utters words indicating it, whether by explicit wording or by an implied phrase with the intention, and it does not require witnesses.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

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