What is the ruling on saying "You are Haram to me" without the intention of divorce, and does anything result from it, knowing that the speaker is not Sudanese but lives among them, and this phrase is common among them?

What has been issued by way of prohibition, if it was unintentional, then nothing is binding. If it was intentional, then there is a difference of opinion. The preponderant view is that if he intended divorce, or ẓihār (a pre-Islamic form of divorce by likening one's wife to an unmarriageable relative), or an oath, then that is what is binding upon him. If he did not intend anything, then an expiation for an oath (kaffārat yamīn) becomes binding upon him. Since you did not intend divorce or ẓihār, the expiation became binding upon you. And since you have expiated for your oath, nothing is binding upon you now.