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What are the implications for me if, ten years ago, I swore an oath of divorce not to buy a Ford car, and now I wish to buy a car of the same type, knowing that I do not remember my intention at the time of the oath?

1 min readAlso available in العربية

The fatwa adopted by us regarding the issue of swearing by divorce is the opinion of the majority, which states that divorce occurs upon breaking the oath. The breaking of the oath depends on the intention of the swearer. If he intended not to buy any Ford car whatsoever, he breaks his oath by buying any Ford car. If he intended not to buy a specific type of it, he does not break his oath by buying another type. If he had no intention, then the reference is to the reason for the oath (the context of the oath). If the oath had no specific reason, or if the reason was unrelated to specifying the type of car, then the reference is to the apparent meaning of the wording, and he breaks his oath by buying any Ford car. The lawful oath is swearing by Allah the Almighty.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · reviewed Sep 2, 2026

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