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The question

What are the implications for me if, ten years ago, I swore an oath of divorce not to buy a Ford car, and now I wish to buy a car of the same type, knowing that I do not remember my intention at the time of the oath?

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Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

The adopted by us regarding the issue of swearing by divorce is the opinion of the majority, which states that divorce occurs upon breaking the oath. The breaking of the oath depends on the intention of the swearer. If he intended not to buy any Ford car whatsoever, he breaks his oath by buying any Ford car. If he intended not to buy a specific type of it, he does not break his oath by buying another type. If he had no intention, then the reference is to the reason for the oath (the context of the oath). If the oath had no specific reason, or if the reason was unrelated to specifying the type of car, then the reference is to the apparent meaning of the wording, and he breaks his oath by buying any Ford car. The lawful oath is swearing by Allah the Almighty.

Summary from Ftawy's records · added here

Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.

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Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
154444
Added here
. This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
Text
Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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Read the full answer on Ftawy