What is the ruling regarding the occurrence of divorce if a man says to his wife: "If you leave the house, by divorce, everything permissible to you becomes forbidden to you," repeating it three times with the intention of threat, and then she leaves and does not return? And what is the ruling regarding his saying to his wife: "By divorce, I will not sleep with you in the bedroom, and by divorce, I will not be intimate with you," knowing that he has not slept with her or been intimate with her since then?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
A Muslim should not accustom his tongue to uttering words of divorce, because divorce is considered valid whether spoken in seriousness or jest. Scholars differ regarding whether an oath of divorce to abstain from sexual intercourse constitutes īlāʾ (a vow of abstinence). Some consider it īlāʾ, which is the view of the majority of scholars, while others do not. It was reported from Ibn Abbas that every oath that prevents intercourse is īlāʾ. The questioner is advised to refer to the Sharīʿah courts.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
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- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 66317
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
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