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The question

Is the process of selling the deceased's house and buying another house in the wife's name without the knowledge and consent of all heirs Islamically void? And is the rent of the new house thereafter considered the wife's exclusive right, or do the heirs have a share in it?

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Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

Resolving disputes in matters of inheritance and shared rights falls under the jurisdiction of the judiciary, as it is best equipped to hear from all parties involved in the dispute and issue a ruling. A mufti, on the other hand, only hears from one party and cannot issue a ruling in such cases. None of the heirs are permitted to dispose of anything except their own share. Anyone who does so without the permission of the other heirs is a usurper, and their actions are invalid unless ratified by the owner. The usurper guarantees the benefits of the usurped property by paying its equivalent rent.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported

Read the full answer on Ftawy
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
195084
Imported
Translation status
Source text, unreviewed
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