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The question

Is a child born as a result of intercourse a month before marriage, and then the marriage took place while she was pregnant with him, considered an illegitimate child (ibn haram)? What is his ruling? Is it permissible to abort him when he is one month old?

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Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

If intercourse occurs after the marriage contract but before the announced consummation (dukhool), the child is attributed to the father. However, if intercourse occurs before the marriage contract, it is considered fornication (zina), and the child is attributed to the mother, inheriting from her and she from him. Abortion is not permissible in this case. There is a disagreement among scholars regarding the attribution of the child to his father if he marries the woman with whom he committed fornication.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported

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Where this answer came from
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Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
37322
Imported
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Source text, unreviewed
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