Does a divorce take place by a word not intended for divorce, such as someone who mistakenly said: "You are divorced" instead of "You are pure," or someone who said: "She is divorced" without intending divorce? And does a divorce take place by the phrase "O Talaq" if the wife's name is Talaq or not Talaq?

Uttering a divorce statement unintentionally is considered a slip of the tongue (laghw) for which one is not held accountable. However, if the utterance is intended for its meaning, then divorce occurs. If someone says to his wife, "O divorced one" (ya taliq), her divorce takes place unless he claims it was a slip of the tongue and there is evidence to support that claim. The non-occurrence of divorce in this case is not due to the divorce not being attributed to a pronoun, but rather to it being a slip of the tongue. Attributing the pronoun to the wife is a condition for the occurrence of an explicit divorce.