Does a divorce take place upon the husband's statement, "If you lie, everything between us is over," if ascertaining the truth depends on the wife's disclosure, or is its occurrence contingent upon the wife's admission of lying? And is the husband's statement, "I cannot afford a wedding," considered a divorce if the intention behind it was to avoid problems and not a sincere intention to separate?
Source: FtawySummary from Ftawy's records · added here Sep 2, 2026
The phrase mentioned ("everything between us is over") is an allusion to divorce. Thus, it does not constitute a divorce unless the husband intends it. If the husband intended divorce, it occurs if his wife told him that she lied to him. However, if he did not intend divorce, it does not occur. And the husband's statement: "I cannot afford a wedding" does not constitute a divorce.
Summary from Ftawy's records · added here
Reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/180881
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 180881
- Added here
- . This is when the answer was added to El Fatwa, not the fatwa's date.
- Text
- Summary from Ftawy's records, reviewed by El Fatwa's sharia committee.
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy