Back to search
The question

Does the intention of divorce take effect upon writing an allusive phrase of divorce after sending it but before it is read, given that the intention was withdrawn before it was read?

Share this answer

Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 20261 min readAlso available in العربية
The answer

The more accurate view is that writing a divorce () is a metaphorical expression (kinayah) that depends on the husband's intention. So, if the husband does not intend to effect a divorce when writing and sending it, then it does not occur. However, if he writes the divorce with the intention of it, his divorce takes effect, even if he does not send the message. The intention must be associated with the utterance when it is spoken.

Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported

Read the full answer on Ftawy
Where this answer came from
Source platform
Ftawy
Original fatwa ID
177021
Imported
Translation status
Source text, unreviewed
Read the full ruling
Read the full answer on Ftawy