Is swearing an oath upon one's wife that she is "forbidden to him until the Day of Judgment," with his awareness and intention, after she had previously rejected him twice (one of which was over the phone), considered a second or third divorce?
The esteemed questioner is advised to refer the matter to the courts for direct clarification from the concerned person.
In general: The first pronouncement of prohibition (tahrim) is a temporary ẓihār for two months, and its ruling ceases with the expiry of the mentioned period.
As for the second pronouncement of prohibition, if the word "tahrim" (prohibition) was uttered without any similitude, it could signify divorce or something else, and he should be asked about his intention behind it. If he intended divorce, and this is the third divorce after two previous divorces, then she becomes irrevocably separated from him (baynunah kubra), and she is not lawful for him until she marries another husband. If he intended divorce and meant complete separation (baynunah), then whatever remains of his divorces takes effect, and she also becomes separated from him.
These matters should be referred to the Sharia court or discussed directly with knowledgeable scholars in the country, due to the intricate details involved in such issues.
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