Is what the questioner did—fondling his wife and fulfilling his desire without intercourse, then offering an expiation for an oath two days later—correct, given that he swore by divorce not to have intercourse with her for three months, and his intention was to threaten?

If a person swears not to have intercourse with his wife for a period less than four months, and then has intercourse with her before the end of that period, he must offer expiation for a broken oath (kaffarat yamin (definition)) if the oath was sworn by Allah. However, if the oath was sworn by divorce (talaq (definition)), the majority of scholars hold that the divorce occurs. Ibn Taymiyyah, on the other hand, chose the view that the divorce does not occur, and instead, expiation for a broken oath is required.