Are the pronounced divorce utterances made in a state of anger and impulsivity counted, given the absence of a legal marriage contract and the mere existence of a civil contract, and without consummation?
Source: FtawySummarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported Sep 2, 2026
A valid Islamic marriage ( shar'i) requires certain conditions to be met. Merely signing papers is not sufficient for its validity, as it lacks the offer (ijab) and acceptance (qabul). Consequently, the woman is not considered a legal wife, and a divorce would not be valid. One must be cautious and avoid laxity and leniency in matters of marriage and divorce.
Summarized from the full answer at Ftawy · imported
Read the full answer on Ftawyhttps://ftawy.com/en/questions/160956
Where this answer came from
- Source platform
- Ftawy
- Original fatwa ID
- 160956
- Imported
- Translation status
- Source text, unreviewed
- Read the full ruling
- Read the full answer on Ftawy